Sunday, August 17, 2003

A Question from the Prune-and-Metamucil Brigade

If "tough" gun control laws are the sovereign remedy for violent crime, why was Scotland's 2000 murder rate 13.3 per 100,000 inhabitants, and Luxembourg's murder rate 14.01 per 100,000 inhabitants, while the rate was only 5.54 in the United States?[1] Why was one more likely to be the victim of a robbery or other violent theft in England, France, Spain than the United States? [2] Why was one more likely to be the victim of a serious violent assault in Australia than the United States?[3]

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[1] Data taken from Interpol crime statistics during 2000 for Scotland, Luxembourg, and the United States. Interpol only reports crime data as relayed by the governments concerned. So while the Russian Federation's murder rate was 21.87 per 100,000 inhabitants, but since I'm not sure if deaths from the attacks of Chechen fighters are regarded by Russian authorities as "murders" or "combat deaths" I left it out. For similar reasons Northern Ireland's higher murder rate of 9.9 was left out of the text.

[2] Data taken from Interpol crime statistics during 2000 for France, England & Wales, Spain, and the United States.

[3] Data taken from Interpol crime statistics during 2000 for Australia and the United States.

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